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Pt.2 Origins of the Words "Jew" and "Judaism"

The original name for the people we now call Jews was Hebrews. The word "Hebrew" (in Hebrew, "Ivri") is first used in the Torah describing Abraham (Gen. 14:13). The word is apparently derived from the name Eber, one of Abraham's ancestors.”

Another name used for the people is Children of Israel or Israelites, which refers to the fact that the people are descendants of Jacob, who was also called Israel.”

Vincent's Word Studies says the phrase means, "a Hebrew from Hebrew parents. . . . The expression implies characteristics of language and manners." The Bible Knowledge Commentary says it means, "a Hebrew son of Hebrew parents."

Only those in the covenant line of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob by natural descent called themselves Hebrews identifying themselves to those who were not.

In the Bible

One of the oldest uses of the word “Jew” in English, according to the Oxford English Dictionary, is found in 1275. Various Ive, Iewe, Iew and was eventually spelled with a J in English even though there is no J in Hebrew language. For example in Scripture: Pilates hym onswerede, am ich Gyv enne?” It is a translation taken from the New Testament where "Pilate answered, Am I a Jew?" (John 18:35).

Erasmus (who was appointed to create the King James Bible) used the word stating “God rejects the Jews,(Erasmus’ colloquy, “The Godly Feast” (Convivium religiosum, AD 1522), aligning with the Catholic church’s position. What we see is that this word was being used in various ways long before the 1800’s.

We are told the word Jew does not appear in the 1611 KJV. But in fact it does. This is easily resolved with a little accurate research. The Word ‘Jew’ was passed into the English language from the Greek and Latin, and was found in early English in various Bibles. The 1611 KJV was first printed in Gothic typeface.

Translated into modern English- Now there was in the citadel of Susa a Jew of the tribe of Benjamin, named Mordecai son of Jair, the son of Shimei, the son of Kish, a Benjamite.(Esther 2:5). Esther 3.4 “ Mordecai had told them that he was a Jew.”

When the people were in exile in Babylonia or elsewhere the term “Jew” was still used in identification for them.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jew_(word) Wikipedia has some good info

Bibles-Online.net | Ancient Bibles Online | Brought to you by GreatSite.com

This appears in multiple English versions from the 1500's. It appears as "Jewe" in the 1568 Bishop's Bible http://www.bibles-online.net/1568/Ne...ment/6-Romans/
Also as "Jewe" in the 1541 Great Bible http://www.bibles-online.net/1541/Ne...ment/6-Romans/

And it appears as "Iewe" as far back as in the 1390 Wycliffe Manuscript.

https://www.jewishencyclopedia.com/articles/8621-jew-the-word
The word “Jew” which is the word used for Judah took the place of Hebrew and Israelite. Let's not get lost between the forest from the trees. The word "Jew" is the modern English version of the Old English Iudea, which comes from the Latin word Iudaeus.

The Hebrew word for "Jew" is יְהוּדִ֔י. The Greek word for Jew is ιουδαῖος. Hebrew and Greek obviously do not use the same alphabet as Latin. The word "Jew" that is in English would not be written in any non-English manuscripts.

Nemos claims, “G2453 Ioudaios was replaced by Jew 196x in the NT. Ioudaios are Judahites.”

From the Blue Letter Bible, the Strong's Number G2453 matches the Greek (ioudaios), which occurs 197 times in 188 verses in the TR Greek.

They, who are part of this anti-Semitic movement actually say, “Jesus was NOT a "Jew" nor was he "King of the Jews." Which means you cannot trust the Word of God.

Jesus is not a Jew? According to the Bible he is (we prove this in the article ‘Was Jesus a Jew, Jewish, an Israelite, a Hebrew?’)

According to this kind of logic one could then say that ‘Yeshua’ is not Jesus, which is no logic at all. The name is transliterated from Hebrew (it refers to the same person.) just as Jews refer to the same people.

This is like saying when believers were called ‘the way’ (Acts.9:2, 24:14), or called ‘born again,’ because you are not using the word ‘Christian’ (Acts.11:26), it is unacceptable. When they are all believers, followers of Jesus.

The bottom line is that they are trying to convince you that JEWS TODAY ARE NOT THE HEBREWS / ISRAELITES OF THE BIBLE, none of them have a connection to the past. If they are not, than the question comes up, who is? And their forthcoming answers are beyond ridiculous.

What the bible says, applies! Not men's opinion.

In Acts 21:27-28, Luke identifies Jews as Israelites, with Paul: “Jews from Asia, upon seeing him in the temple, began to stir up all the crowd and laid hands on him, crying out, "Men of Israel, come to our aid! This is the man who preaches to all men everywhere against our people . . . .”What we plainly see here is the correlation of Jews, Israel and being their people.

The Bible defines what the Word Jew, or Jewish is.

In the New Testament Paul was from the tribe of Benjamin, the same tribe Mordecai was from in the Book of Esther. He states in Phil. 3:5 he is, “ circumcised the eighth day, of the nation of Israel”. . . . of the stock of Israel, of the tribe of Benjamin, a Hebrew of the Hebrews.” He states 2 Cor. 11:22 “ Are they Hebrews? So am I. Are they Israelites? So am I. Are they the seed of Abraham? So am I.” Paul also calls himself a Jew in Acts 21:39, " I am a Jew from Tarsus.” This proves all three terms identify the same people; they are synonymous. All the books contain a consistent explanation of equating Israel, Israelite, and Hebrews with the Identity of Jews.

Romans 11:1, Rabbi Sh'aul (known as Paul) was an "Israelite" of "the Tribe of Benjamin," as was king Saul. Benjamin was part of [the southern kingdom of] Judah, but it did not make him from the Tribe of Judah (as there were 12 tribes).

Paul also says in Acts 23:6“Men and brethren, I am a Pharisee, the son of a Pharisee.”Which means the Pharisee’s were also Jews.

In 1 Cor. 9:20-21 Paul states, “and to the Jews I became as a Jew, that I might win Jews; to those who are under the law.” What are these people doing under the law if they, who are Jews, are not really Hebrews, Israelites?

Again 1 Cor. 10:1-2Paul says,brethren, I do not want you to be unaware that all our fathers were under the cloud, all passed through the sea.”Clearly, he is speaking to his brethren, the Jews about what took place with Israel going into the Promised Land.

Are Gentiles Israelites?

Mr. Nemos comes up with this estranged interpretation “ Gentiles is a Latin word that means a nation, race, or tribe of people. It can describe any race or people, including Jews!”

No, it does not include Jews. The Bible keeps this distinction of Jew and Gentile throughout the Old Testament into the New Testament. Also, to be accurate, the New Testament was first written in Greek, not Latin. The word Gentile is used 50 times from Genesis to Malachi. In Hebrew it is pronounced goy, used for foreign nations. In the New Testament it means a race, a nation[s], people that are distinct from Israel.

Paul writes in Gal. 2:15 “We who are Jews by nature, and not sinners of the Gentiles.” Scripture Distinguishes the children of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob of the covenant with those who are not.

God himself says to Paul, “I will deliver you from the Jewish people , as well as from the Gentiles, to whom I now send you”(Acts 26:17.) How would this make sense if Gentiles are Jews? Several versus later Paul gives the gospel V:23 “ that the Christ would suffer, that He would be the first to rise from the dead, and would proclaim light to the Jewish people and to the Gentiles ." Distinguishing them as different people groups, only when they believe the gospel they become one in Christ. Nemos is wrong!

The church recognized that “God has also granted to the Gentiles repentance to life” (Acts 11:18, referring to Act 10:45). The Jews were already being saved, this is why this makes no sense. This changes Act 9 to mean when Paul was sent to the Jews, they are gentiles! Both Scripture, and Paul makes a distinction between Jews and Gentiles even after his salvation. So who will you believe? The Word of God or those who abuse it?

As far as a people, God himself says to Paul He will send him to Gentiles(Acts 26:17). Several versus later Paul gives the gospel distinguishing both groups of people.V:23 “ that the Christ would suffer, that He would be the first to rise from the dead, and would proclaim light to the Jewish people and to the Gentiles."

One needs to ask, did Paul write under the inspiration of God's Spirit? Many of the people who take these positions do not believe so. This Scripture should settle who the people he is of are. Rom. 9:2-5 Paul speaks of “great sorrow and continual grief in my heart. For I could wish that I myself were accursed from Christ for my brethren, my countrymen according to the flesh, who are Israelites, to whom pertain the adoption, the glory, the covenants, the giving of the law, the service of God, and the promises ; of whom are the fathers and from whom, according to the flesh, Christ came, who is over all, the eternally blessed God. Amen.”

Paul confirms his brethren the Jews are the Israelites, not gentiles.

Israel's descendants became known as b'nei Yisrael, sons of Israel (Genesis 42:5, 45:21, 46:5, Exodus 1:1, Deuteronomy 23:17, 1 Chronicles 2:1) or, as we say it in English, Israel.

In 1 Kings 12:20-24 Israel heard that Jeroboam had come back and they made him king over all Israel. None followed the house of David, but the tribe of Judah only” V.21 Rehoboam came to Jerusalem; he assembled all the house of Judah with the tribe of Benjamin, … to fight against the house of Israel, to restore the kingdom. V.22-24 “ But the word of God came to Shemaiah the man of God, saying, "Speak to Rehoboam the son of Solomon, king of Judah, to all the house of Judah and Benjamin, and to the rest of the people , saying, Thus says the LORD: "You shall not go up nor fight against your brethren the children of Israel.

It becomes clear that not just Judah is considered Israel, who says so? God himself!

In the Old Testament, Ruth a Gentile said, “ Your people shall be my people, your God, my God.” She moved from Moab to live in the Land, but also joined herself to the God of Israel, requiring her to come under the Law of Moses. Still, she was not called an Israelite or a Jewess, but a Moabitess.

Converting to Judaism is not the same as being born a Jew (Hebrew), in the lineage of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. In Acts 6:1, we have two Israelite groups named: Hellenistic Jews and native Hebrews. The converts are not of the lineage but considered part of Judaism, in general a Jew.

In the New Testament, Nicholas, a Gentile convert to Judaism, came to believe in Jesus is called “a proselyte from Antioch”(Acts 6:5.) Gentiles do not become Israelites, Hebrew or Jews! They are grafted into the new covenant (Jer.31:31; Rom.11).

p.3 Was Jesus a Jew, an Israelite, or a Hebrew?

 

 

 

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