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False Arguments on the Word Jew! Mike Adams in his interview with Dustin Nemos says, "Now I realize how evil and wicked these people were, but then you said those aren't the same people, and now you've got a lot to add to this.” Dustin Nemos: “I want to go into the word Jew a little bit, because that was made up and injected 1400-ish years after Jesus. Jesus was not a Jew, (he was a Judahite of the region of Judea... Judahite is a family bloodline." (Nov.2, 2024) That’s an interesting argument, as the word Judahite appears nowhere in Scripture. The word Israelite does, 6 times in the Old Testament from Leviticus on (see Neh.9:2). In Scripture Jew[s] are identified as Hebrews. Being a Hebrew is used of Abraham in Gn.14:13. The word is used 8 times in the Old Testament, 20 times In the New Testament. The Hebrew bloodline is from Abraham to Isaac to Jacob. Judah is one of 12 sons, the tribes were interrelated by blood. Judah is the 4th son of Jacob through Leah, one of Jacob's 12 sons before the tribes were ordained. The 12 Tribes of Israel were known as Israelites (used 14 times), who are the Hebrews. Yehudi, was a term originally applied to the tribe of Judah. Judah later had a piece of land named after him. In English, we call that piece of land Judea. Matthew writes of Bethlehem in the region of Judea. It can refer to a person from the land of Judea, it came to refer to an ethnicity of the people of the religion who practiced Judaism. The word Jew is the modern vernacular of Yehudi, it is the same thing; Judah. After King Solomon’s death, the nation of Israel was split into two kingdoms: the kingdom of Judah and the kingdom of Israel (I Kings 12; II Chronicles 10), both to whom a new covenant is promised to (Jer.31:31).At this time, the word ‘Yehudi’ was used to describe anyone from the kingdom of Judah, and it also included the tribes of Judah, Benjamin, Levi, and other tribes. When the Israelites were spread throughout the Roman Empire, and received an appellation designating them as people from there: iūdaeus. This Latin word came from the equivalent Greek word ioudaios, which in turn came from the Aramaic yehudai, which in turn came from the Hebrew yehudi– Judah or Judean (Yehudai- Aramaic). The word ‘Jew’ is a modern vernacular from Yehudi (Judah), it is the same thing. The facts are that Hebrews/ Israelites called themselves Jews elsewhere in the Bible. This does not seem to occur to these Brainiacs of bad bible interpretation who do not accept history or the Word. Why can’t they accept them being called Jews? Because they are against Israel, and its people. These men are lying to everyone about history, and they are not basing anything on the Bible correctly. Dustin Nemos says, “Only 13 of the 26 NT books use the word ‘Jew;’ that’s half. However, the books all coincide with the consistent explanation of equating Israel[ite] and Hebrews as being Jews. The names Hebrew, Israelite and Jew are synonymous. Jew is used numerous times in 5 books of the Old Testament. In fact, in the Old Testament the word Israelite in its singular form is used only 6 times and its plural form is only used 12 times. So his point is basically moot. It is applied to Gods people of the covenant. He goes on to say, “…when the fraudulent made-up word ‘Jew’ was placed in the revisions of the Bible.” ‘Jews’ (plural) is used 72 times in the Old Testament. The word Jew is used 17 times before the book of Esther, starting in 2 nd Kings 25:25. Well over 500 years before Christ. It is used 8 times through Ezra and 8 times in Nehemiah. The term ‘Jew[s]’ is used singular in the book of Esther 8 times and a plural 44 times (when they were in captivity 600 BC). The word Jew is used 20 times in the New Testament. In the plural form, the New Testament uses it over 170 times (190 times in all). It is the most used word for and by Jesus’ brethren, said by him and by others (85 times in the gospels). And yet He (they) want us to believe it did not exist prior to a few hundred years ago? In the Septuagint, the Greek Old Testament, the word Ioudaíous for Jews is used over 60 times, which was translated in Greek over 200 years before Christ Jesus. In the Septuagint version 38 times the name ‘Jews’ are in Esther; 10 times in Jeremiah. The scribes were those who copied the Scripture would not dare change words, or their meanings. Mr. Nemos claims“It is an incontestable fact that the word “Jew” did not come into existence until the year 1775. Prior to 1775 the word “Jew” did not exist in any language.”(Nemos give various dates that contradict his other dates). Nemos teaches this term was purposely changed or added,“This word ‘Jew’ is not a mistake, it is a deliberate tampering of scripture. The result is that the world and the ‘churches’ believe the Jews are Israelites, which they are not. The Hebrew word for Judah, which is Yahudah, was replaced in the 16th century with the word ‘Jew’. This happened as a result of over 14 centuries with the variations of the Latin word ioudaeus.” These names all refer to the same people of the covenant. But Nemos claims Jews tampered with the word of God and put this new term in (even in the New Testament?) And here is his reasoning, “In the Old Testament, the incorrect word ‘Jew’ NEVER identifies a Jew. It always identifies an Israelite of the tribe or house of Judah. Jews are not Israelites, they are Edomites.” That is a completely obtuse claim. Nemos writes, “H3063 yahudah is the Hebrew for ‘Judah’. It’s used 820 times in the OT. It identifies the man Judah, the tribe of Judah, the house of Judah, and the territory of Judah. It never identifies Jews in the OT. Ever.” This first portion is true; the last is completely untrue. As we see in Persia when Israel was in captivity 539 BC. In the book of Esther, Mordecai is from the tribe of Benjamin and is called a Jew (Esther 9:29) along with his people from all the tribes. Same word Yehuwdiy (i.e. Judaite or Jew). The king calls them Jews. The terms Israelite, Hebrew is not used. Being captive, where did they come from? They were taken from the land of Israel, these were also known as Esther’s people (Esther 2:10, 2:20). In fact Jer. 40:1 tells us they the Jews, were “carried away captive from Jerusalem and Judah,” to Babylon. When they were in Babylon, Dan 3:16 Friends of Daniel, Shadrach, Meshach, and Abed-nego are called Jews, who worshipped the same God as Daniel, the God of Israel. Dan. 3:28 After they survived the fire Nebuchadnezzar spoke, saying, "Blessed be the God of Shadrach, Meshach, and Abed-nego.”In Jer. 40:12 it says, “all the Jews returned out of all places where they had been driven, and came to the land of Judah.” “a Jew of the tribe of Benjamin, named Mordecai son of Jair, the son of Shimei, the son of Kish, a Benjamite.” The word Jew[s] is mentioned 40 times in this book. We do not find the word Israel, Israelite[s] or Hebrew in the book of Esther. The term Jew identifies Esther, Mordacai and all the people in captivity. Why do we not call Esther Hadassah, her Hebrew name? Because its transliterated into another language, but she is still the same person. OT:3064 Yehuwdiy OT:3063 Yehuwdah from OT:3034; celebrated; Jehudah (or Judah), the name of five Israelites; also of the tribe descended from the first, and of its territory : (New Exhaustive Strong's Numbers and Concordance with Expanded Greek-Hebrew Dictionary.) Throughout history the word Jew was used to describe the same people, whether they are called Hebrews, or Israelites, children of Israel. The Israelites, the Hebrews today nor in the past belonged only to one the tribe, that of Judah. Because they are called "Jews," does not disqualify that they do not go all the way back and belong to the 12 tribes from Jacob, through Isaac to Abraham. From the Jerusalem virtual library‘ The word "Jew" (in Hebrew, "Yehudi") is derived from the name Judah, which was the name of one of Jacob's twelve sons. Judah was the ancestor of one of the tribes of Israel, which was named after him. Likewise, the word Judaism literally means "Judah-ism," that is, the religion of the Yehudim.” The term Ἰουδαῖος, Ἰουδαία Ἰουδαῖον,Ιουδα -Aristotle (in Josephus, contra Apion 1, 22, 7 where see Müller), Polybius, Diodorus, Strabo, Plutarch, others; the Sept.; (cf. Sophocles Lexicon, under the word), Jewish; joined to nouns, belonging to the Jewish race: ἀνήρ,Acts10:28; Acts 22:3 (1 Macc. 2:23); νθρωπος, Acts 21:39; ; ψευδοπροφήτης, Acts 13:6; ; ἀρχιερεύς, Acts 19:14;γυνή, Acts 16:1; Acts 24:24; ??, John 3:22;χώρα, Mark 1:5. In the 4th Century BC – Jericho, Theophrastus (c. 371 – c. 287 BC) was a Greek philosopher from Eresos, Lesbos, and a close associate of Aristotle. Theophrastus was the first Greek writer and philosopher, in the fourth century B.C., who mentions the name Jew, 'Ιουδαὶος', stating the Jews are “philosophers by descent.” 1 Thess. 2:14 Ioudaía- Judea word 2449 Jews: #2453 Ioudaíoon (Interlinear Transliterated Bible). Translated of the same root just a different tense. Rome of the first century used the Latin term ‘Iudaeus’ transliterated from the Hebrew word Judah for ‘all the people of Israel,’ not people of a certain tribe. A Jew is a member of the nation of Israel, and the term Jews , used in general biblical sense is identical to the nation of Israel. To Gentiles the Jews were identical to Israelites/ Hebrews whether they were believing or unbelieving Jews. The Romans called them all Jews. This includes Jesus' disciples, or Jesus Himself. Even Paul, who was a Pharisee before he chosen to be an apostle to the Gentiles, identified himself as a Jew, and as an Israelite to both Jews and Gentiles alike. This whole matter becomes more of a semantical argument rather than an ethnic one. Unfortunately, theirs is not an honest one; it has become fully exaggerated to generalize a whole people group as NOT being the people God covenanted with by the heretics. Those in the covenant line of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob by natural descent are called Hebrews; the Bible also calls them Jews. Would these people who use this term, as a weapon be any different toward them if they were to call themselves Hebrews or Israelites? I don’t think so. This word is being weaponized against them. Dustin Nemos says,“99% of the ‘churches’ believe the Jews are the Israelites of the bible, and believe that Jesus is a Jew.”Nemos actually says , “Jesus was not referred to as a so-called ‘Jew’ until the 18th century.” In other words, he is saying the whole world has been deceived into believing the Jews are the Israelites of the Bible. And … that Jesus is not one of them; he is a Jew (See this article that proves from Scripture Jesus was a Jew). This is what the modern anti-semitic movement is claiming in one poisoned voice. Nemos has numerous dates he gives for this change, that it “was made up and injected 1400-ish years after Jesus” (sometimes its 1800 yrs.) Has God been deceived too? Why is he bringing the people from all over the world into the land called Israel as he prophesied? Because God is in control and He is fulfilling his Word. (article on the regathering in the last days ) But they say this is not true. Where does the Bible say the land will be taken over by counterfeits (Edomites) calling themselves Jews, who are not Israelites, who are not of the 12 tribes? It doesn’t. Other ancient books in the first century and before mention ‘Jews.’ Why can’t they accept them being called Jews? Because they are against Israel, and its people in the land. These men are misrepresenting, even lying about history, and they certainly are not basing anything on the Bible correctly. The reason is; they do not want you to connect Jewish people of today to Israel and Judah. Again he quotes, “Jews began to call themselves Hebrews and Israelites in 1860 ″ — Encyclopedia Judaica 1971 Vol. 10:23. www.jewishencyclopedia.com/ I have this book and looked but could not find this quotation in the Encyclopedia 2 nd ed. from 1971. Regardless, both the Bible and History prove differently on this. This quote is clearly incorrect as they are called this long before the New Testament. even Abraham is called a Hebrew (`Ibriy, a descendant of Eber in English, meaning one who crossed over). Hebrews and Israelites are the oldest names identifying the Jewish people of the covenant. The words "Hebrew" and "Israelite" quote are posted on the web from the 1906 version. But what is not included before this clarifies this statement, “At one time during the emancipation era there was a tendency among Jews to avoid the application of the term to themselves.”And the same Encyclopedia quoted says, “In the Old Testament the term "Jew" appears to be applied to adherents of the worship ofYhwhas conducted at Jerusalem after the Exile: it is thus used in the late Book of Esther.”Something he (they) refuse to acknowledge that damages their whole premise. The term Israelites was used from the time the Jewish people entered the Land God gave them. The earliest mention of Israel in history is inscribed on the Merneptah Stele around 1213–1203 BCE, religious literature tells the story of Israelites going back at least as far as 1500 BCE. Which is when Moses wrote the Tanach. When did they become known as Jews The modern usage of the word Jew is often applied to any person of the Hebrew race. At the present time "Jew" is commonly used, instead of the ancient biblical Hebrew words. Again, these words all describe the same people, whether they are called Hebrews, Israelites, or Jews. What He and others are doing is making an argument from a word he refuses to accept and leads you into a semantical jungle of darkness. The term Israelite is used singularly in the Old Testament 6 times, and plural 12 times. First in Ex: 9:7 the Israelites. Children of Israel is the most common phrase, used over 615 times in the Old Testament; and used 14 times in the New Testament. Israelite is used in the New Testament twice. The only time Jesus uses this word is when he called Nathanael an Israelite (John 1:47). The second time Israelite is used in the New Testament is by Paul in Romans 11:1“I say then, Hath God cast away his people? God forbid. For I also am an Israelite, of the seed of Abraham, of the tribe of Benjamin.”Paul makes it clear Israelite represents Gods people and he also used the word Jew the same way. The Jews did not insert or replace any of the words with ‘Jew.’ There is no Jewish conspiracy of changing names or words as these men teach. Many books have the word Jew in it, even the Quran does which started being put together from the early 600 AD uses the term Jew[s], (Yahudi) and Jewish over 35 times in its English translation. It would be hard to make a case of Jewish influence, inserting these words into the Quran. I doubt the Jews got to tamper with the Quran, but that’s what would have had to happen if you believe Nemos’ arguments. But then, Nemos also believes Mohammed was a Jew!
The Latin form "Judæus" was derived from the Greek 'Iουδαĩοσ; and this
in turn from the Aramaic
p.2 Origins of the Words "Jew" and what is"Judaism"
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,
corresponding to the Hebrew
...
about the year 1000. Ormin, about 1200, uses the form "Judeow," derived
from Old High German "Judeo," from which the modern German "Jude" is
also derived.
