Mormon’s say that Jesus got married at Cana and had many wives Martha, Mary and others he also had many children” (Journal of Discourses vol.1 345-346 vol.2 79-82 vol.4:259-260 the Seer p.172)

If we are supposed to follow the Jesus the Mormon’s present, would it not be prudent to do whatever he did? this is why Polygamy is still practiced by some Mormons in  Utah.

If Jesus was married, then He abandoned his wife and children when he left them and went to America and then up to heaven. Is this the family values that Mormonism wants to teach people?

If Jesus was as Mormons describe, then he would be called an adulterer who started their religion. He broke His own commandments in the New Testament of having one husband and one wife. This of course is not according to the Bible, but according to their teachings. No one in the history of Christianity has ever said such a thing as he was married, much less had several wives and children.

If one is going to follow the “Mormon Jesus” they should imitate what he did, should they not?

The fact is that God never commanded polygamy or divorce. Scripture says (Bible) He only permitted it because of the hardness of their hearts (Deut. 24:1; Matt. 19:8). Matt 5:31-32 “Furthermore it has been said, “Whoever divorces his wife, let him give her a certificate of divorce. But I say to you that whoever divorces his wife for any reason except sexual immorality causes her to commit adultery; and whoever marries a woman who is divorced commits adultery.” God hates divorce as well as polygamy, since it destroys the family (Mal. 2:16). There are some instances of separation but they always have the intent of restoration. There is only one reason for divorce, when the mate is unfaithful. But even in this Jesus teaches one is not obligated to divorce, it is an option for the faithful mate.

Was Abraham, David Solomon condemned or approved for practicing polygamy? Well they certainly did not get blessed for it! The fact that every polygamist in the Bible like David and Solomon (1 Chron. 14:3) were punished. This should be evidence that this is not God’s will.

Jesus said one man and one woman. He did not rescind that command. What does this mean? Exactly what it says.

In the Bible I count 15 examples of polygamy from the time of Lamech to 931 A.D. 13 of these men had enough power that no one could call into question their practice, they were either unaccountable or no one would dare approach them. Lamech Genesis 4:19; Abraham Genesis 16; Esau Genesis 26:34; 28:9; Jacob Genesis 29:30; Ashur 1 Chronicles 4:5; Gideon Judges 8:30; Elkanah 1 Samuel 1:2; David 1 Samuel 25:39-44; 2 Samuel 3:2-5; 5:13; 1 Chronicles 14:3; Solomon 1 Kings 11:1-8; Rehoboam 2 Chronicles 11:18-23; Abijah 2 Chronicles 13:21; Jehoram 2 Chronicles 21:14; Joash 2 Chronicles 24:3; Ahab 2 Kings 10; Jehoiachin 2 Kings 24:15; Belshazzar Daniel 5:2; 1 Chronicles 2:8; Hosea in Hosea 3:1,2. Polygamy is mentioned in the Mosaic law and made inclusive on the basis of legislation, and continued to be practiced all down through the period of Jewish history to the Captivity, after which there is no instance of it on record (Gen.29:15-30, Jacob and his wives.)

God never condoned polygamy but like divorce he allowed it to occur. In other words he did not bring an immediate punishment for this disobedience. Deut. 17:14-17 “I will set a king over me like all the nations that are around me,' “you shall surely set a king over you whom the LORD your God chooses; one from among your brethren you shall set as king over you; you may not set a foreigner over you, who is not your brother. But he shall not multiply horses for himself, nor cause the people to return to Egypt to multiply horses, for the LORD has said to you, 'You shall not return that way again.' “Neither shall he multiply wives for himself, lest his heart turn away; nor shall he greatly multiply silver and gold for himself.” This is the command of God, and he has never changed it.

1 Kings 11:3 says Solomon had 700 wives and 300 concubines violating the principle of monogamy that he was given. Consider that Solomon at one time was the wisest man in the world. In I Kings 11:4: “For it came to pass, when Solomon was old, that his wives turned away his heart after other gods: and his heart was not perfect with the LORD his God, as was the heart of David his father.” Notice Solomon became a polytheist because he was influenced in polygamy. In his case many wives, became many gods. This is crucial in understanding the roots of Mormonism as well. For they have both. 

God punished those who violated His standard (1 Kings 11:2). Just because the Bible records Solomon's sin of polygamy does not mean that God approved of it.

Elkanah's wives exemplify the evils of polygamy. Scripture has always commanded monogamy (Ps.128:3; Prov. 5:18; 18:22; 19:14; 31:10-29; Eccl. 9:9).

The Mormon Church uses the Old Testament to justify the practice of plural marriage by their early prophets and today in their concept of what awaits them in heaven. While it is true that it was practiced by some of the people of the Old Testament, this does not mean that it was right in the sight of God. These people also committed many other sins that God did not approve of either. The people in the Old Testament also had slaves, and killed their enemies. To say that plural marriage is right because it was practiced in the Old Testament makes no more sense than to say that God approves of slavery today, since it was also practiced in the Old Testament. By the way in Judaism they were not slaves like in other countries (like the Jews were in Egypt), they were servants who were paid for what they did. They even had the option of leaving after 7 years or staying with their master. They were to be treated with a higher standard than the other nations.

Paul insisted that a leader in the church should be “the husband of one wife” there are no contradictions.

The clear New Testament teaching is an deacon or elder must have one wife... Titus 1:6. “A deacon must be the husband of but one wife.” This was a restriction for those who were married to numerous wives.1 Timothy 3:12: “Now the overseer must be above reproach, the husband of but one wife” I Tim. 3:2. This does not mean that all Mormons except those in leadership can take multiple wives for themselves? This means the leadership could never enter the ultimate heaven as Mormons, as they are to have multiple wives.

If a Mormon is going to use the Bible and claim they believe in Jesus, then they must go by the commandments of Jesus. Then what He taught is absolutely clear, no polygamy in heaven just like on earth. Mk.12:25 When the dead rise, they will neither marry nor be given in marriage... So a Mormon needs to choose whom he will follow and obey.

Jesus the Lord reaffirmed God's original intent in Matt. 19:4 that God created one “male and [one] female” and joined them in marriage. Gen. 2:24 “Therefore a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and they shall become one flesh. That is singular, and Jesus repeats this. It means exactly what is says, one man and one woman, not two woman. Whatever the patriarchs or any Christian did wrong does not change the fact the Bible condemns it. It condemns prejudice as well as polygamy.

And the two will become one flesh Eph. 5:31. The New Testament stresses that “Each man [should] have his own wife, and let each woman have her own husband” (1 Cor. 7:2). Monogamous marriage teaches us the type of the relation Christ has between himself and His bride the church (Eph. 5:31-32). The church is called the bride collectively as one (singular) each person is not a bride, as in plurality of wives and marriages. Christ teaches as He has one bride “the church”, this is the same instruction for all mankind as the commandment was given in the beginning. It will also be this way in heaven. Just as Adam had one bride so does Christ and so are we commanded.

Monogamy has always been God's standard for the human race. From the very beginning God set the pattern by creating a monogamous marriage relationship -one man and one woman, Adam and Eve (Gen. 1:27; 2:21-25). It does not means he became one with “each wife”; then this would mean he would be a husband to each, committing adultery. God certainly could have made two or more wives for Adam, this would have endorse the idea of polygamy, but he made only one.

The point is that Mormons will only use the Bible to their advantage so they can twist the Scripture to mean what it does not. How many wives did Adam have in Gen.2:24? One. God did not take two wives out from his side. Why does Jesus in Mt.19 refer to this about marriage? God-established a one woman for one man, this was to be the order for the human race throughout time (Gen. 4:1). In Gen. 2:18 “And the LORD God said, It is not good that the man should be alone; I will make him an helpmate for him.” This is singular. V. 22 relates the creation of Eve, again showing that there was to be just one woman for each man. V.24 states: “Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife; and they shall be one flesh.”. God always spoke of man's “wife,” as singular, not wives. Notice it also states one father one mother. (Gen. 2:18, 22-23; Matt. 19:5-6; Eph. 5:31; I Cor. 7:2; Deut.17:17; I Tim.3:2, 12).

Adam was faithful to one wife his whole life. It wasn’t until sin made man fall (Gen. 4:23) that polygamy occurs. according to Mormonism Cain was cursed, Lamech is a descendent of Cain. He is the first to practice polygamy, being the first to break God’s law of one man and one wife? The first time polygamous relationship is found in the Bible in a thriving rebellious society of sin; when a murderer named “Lamech [a descendant of Cain] took for himself two wives” (Gen.4:19, 23). Why did Mormonism claim polygamy was a command of God and stated it could never be done away with and we find (according to their teaching) the cursed one upholding.

This is not a good example to have a proof text for justifying polygamy. If there was ever a justification for polygamy it would be applied when Adam and Eve were commanded to populate the earth. Yet we see the set pattern of one woman and one man in marriage from the beginning. Jesus even pointed this out in Mark 10:6-9 “But from the beginning of the creation, God made them “male and female.” For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh; so then they are no longer two, but one flesh.” Therefore what God has joined together, let not man separate.” It is two persons in marriage just as it states. 

The same pattern is lived by Noah at the time of the Ark (Gen. 7:7). Noah took his one wife into the ark, all his son’s took one wife; God called Noah’s family righteous and pure. If polygamy were ordained of God, it would have made sense that Noah and his sons would have taken additional wives with them to repopulate the earth faster? That’s human wisdom, but not God’s wisdom.

There are some stipulations in the law that are remotely connected to this subject, lets look at them. Matt. 22:24 “Teacher, Moses said that if a man dies, having no children, his brother shall marry his wife and raise up offspring for his brother.” This is based on the commandment found in Deut 25:5-6 “If brothers dwell together, and one of them dies and has no son, the widow of the dead man shall not be married to a stranger outside the family; her husband's brother shall go in to her, take her as his wife, and perform the duty of a husband's brother to her. “And it shall be that the firstborn son which she bears will succeed to the name of his dead brother, that his name may not be blotted out of Israel.”

2 Sam. 12:7-8 is often misapplied. It means that all of Saul’s possessions were put into David’s jurisdiction as the King. Nowhere do we see Saul’s two wives listed as David’s. David inherited Saul's wives, the custom of the culture at the time for the succeeding ruler to receive all of the prior ruler's property and women. This does not validate God endorsing the practice of polygamy for the people.

We see in 2 Sam.12:15-18 The Lord took David’s son from his adulterous relationship with Bathsheba, though he married her. Mormons claim this can't be misinterpreted or explained away. That it was GOD who gave David all the wives that he had! God approved, sanctioned, and blessed this practice! David's sin was that he took a woman who was already married to another man. In other words, he took a woman without the consent of the Lord.

The Bible clearly and decidedly states that God does not condone or allow the practice of polygamy over and over again.

Similar to David’s sin the original Mormon prophet has this written of himself “What would a man of God say, who felt aright, when Joseph asked him for his money? He would say, 'Yes, and I wish I had more to help to build up the kingdom of God.' Or if he came and said, 'I want your wife?' '0 yes,' he would say, 'here she is, there are plenty more.'... Did the Prophet Joseph want every man's wife he asked for?... If such a man of God should come to me and say, 'I want your gold and silver, or your wives,' I should say, 'Here they are, I wish I had more to give you, take all I have got.”' (Journal of Discourses, vol.2, pages 13-14)

The Bible says adultery is not a choice, one does not have to acquire another wife to solve his urges. Jesus said if you look upon another woman with desire (married or not) it is adultery, a sin.

Mormons teach- Let's consider the great lawgiver, Moses. He also had more than one wife. Certainly, he, more than anyone else, knew and kept the law which God gave on MT Sinai. Here's what the Bible tells us in Numbers 12:1-15: There are two interesting things to note about this story. The first is that Miriam was not angry because Moses had married another woman (having already taken Zipporra for his wife). She was angry because he married an Ethiopian woman, who was not of the tribe of Israel. The second thing is that, although Miriam and Aaron complained about this, the Lord didn't. In fact, God punished Miriam because she complained about the second wife of Moses. If having more than one wife is an abomination before God, surely He would have condemned Moses for practicing it.”

This is false, Moses did not marry two wives, he had only one Zipporra. This is the same woman in Exodus and Numbers. Instead, God declared that Moses was “faithful in all mine house” (Numbers 12:7; Heb.3:5).

Lets look at what Mormonism teaches about the Bible. The Doctrine and Covenants contains this statement: “ I, the Lord his God . . . commanded Abraham to take Hagar to wife” (132:65). This is a false representation of the account found in the Bible. God did not command this; the Bible makes it clear “Abram listened to the voice of Sarai” (Gen. 16:2). Sarai gave Hagar over to Abram because she did not believe what God said, that she could have a child in her old age. She failed in faith and Abraham heeding her advice did also. Genesis 16:5 makes it clear that Sarai had sinned in this matter: “And Sarai said unto Abram, my wrong be upon thee.” They needed patience to wait on God’s timing. So the Mormons blame this on God but to do this they must contradict what He said in the Bible. It was Ishmael who was conceived due to Abraham's lapse in faith. Scripture shows that Abraham did not continue to have sexual relations with Ishmael's mother Hagar. Abraham, as a godly old man, married Keturah and had more children after Sarah's death, not when she was alive.

The command in Mt.19:4-6 is for everyone, it is not an option. God put up with a lot of wrong in the Old Testament just as he does today. Some cultures it was acceptable to do what Abraham did with Hagar as he had approval from Sarah, but it still did not make it right. Every time a wife or marriage is mentioned by Gods command it is in the singular. 1 Cor. 7:1-2 “let each man have his own wife, and let each woman have her own husband” singular.

What does the Book of Mormon actually teach on marriage? Well it started out with one woman per man, but Smith being in control, coveted other women (marrying over 20, some say more) and so the revelation changed.

“for they have not forgotten the commandment of the Lord, which was given unto our father - that they should have save it were one wife, and concubines they should have none...” (Book of Mormon, Jacob 3:5)
“And now it came to pass that the people of Nephi ...began to grow hard in their hearts, and indulge themselves somewhat in wicked practices, such as like unto David of old desiring many wives and concubines....”( Book of Mormon, Jacob 1:15).
“Behold, David and Solomon truly had many wives and concubines, which thing was abominable before me, saith the Lord.” (Book Of Mormon, Jacob 24)

“And it came to pass that Riplakish did not do that which was right in the sight of the Lord, for he did have many wives and concubines...” (Book of Mormon, Ether 10:5) Well was this wrong or right? Right for a certain time and wrong for another time? Was David and Solomon's polygamy was abominable before God. Why does Doctrines and Covenants 132:37-39 say God gave many wives and concubines to David and Solomon which were counted for righteousness and they did not sin. Which is true? Is polygamy abominable or approved by God?

“Do the Mormons believe in having more wives than one? (Smith answered) No, not at the same time.” (The Teachings of the Prophet Joseph Smith, as recorded in Elder's Journal, Vol. 1 no.2, pp. 28-29, 1838)

However what was written in the Book of Mormon conflicts with the revelation in Doctrine and Covenants, their prophets writings and practices, which states “I, the Lord, justified my servants ...David and Solomon ...as touching the principle and doctrine of having many wives and concubines... David's wives and concubines were given unto him by me...”(Doctrine and Covenants 132: 1, 39) not to mention Joseph Smith had numerous wives.

The Bible explicitly teaches marriage to one but in Mormonism it explicitly teaches marriage to many. Smith himself changed his mind. Joseph Smith did not at first practice polygamy: “Insomuch as this church of Christ has been reproached with the crime of fornication and polygamy: we declare that we believe that one man should have one wife; and one woman but one husband, except in case of death, when either is at liberty to marry again...” (Doctrine and Covenants Sec. 101, 1835 edition)

If polygamy was legal than why did Joseph Smith or the Mormon gods change his mind and make it illegal? Why do they not practice it today? Because they know it is wrong, their own book says so. The God of the Bible never changed his mind on this command, this was a creation ordinance. What we see is the Solomon principle at work.