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Questions to ask the Jehovah's Witnesses on the 144,000 that will make them think


 Matt. 4:17: From that time Jesus began to preach and to say, “Repent, for the kingdom of heaven is at hand.”

He offered this to all, not just 144,000, why say this if the kingdom of heaven is different then the Kingdom of God?

The sermon on the Mount Jesus constantly used the phrase kingdom of heaven, not the kingdom of God

Matt 7:21: “Not everyone who says to Me, 'Lord, Lord,' shall enter the kingdom of heaven, but he who does the will of My Father in heaven.”

In other words if you do the Fathers will You WILL enter the kingdom of heaven, are only the 144,000 doing the Fathers will?

Matt 10:6-7: “But go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel. “And as you go, preach, saying, 'The kingdom of heaven is at hand.' Why did he offer only them heaven and not the other sheep?

Why did Jesus speak only of the kingdom of heaven in the parables of Mt.13 When so few are going there?

Why did Jesus say in Matthew 11:11-14: “And from the days of John the Baptist until now the kingdom of heaven suffers violence, and men of violence take it by force.”  Was not John the baptist's ministry on earth as were all the prophets?

Why did Jesus say in Matt 18:3 unless you are converted and become as little children, you will by no means enter the kingdom of heaven.” And not mention that you are to become one of the 144,000 to enter?

The righteous shall inherit the land, and dwell therein for ever.” Psalm 37:29.

Are not the 144,000 righteous?

Ps 25:14 The secret of the LORD is with those who fear Him, and He will show them His covenant.

Do does this mean the great crowd does not fear him?

Ps 37:11 “But the meek shall inherit the earth, and shall delight themselves in the abundance of peace.”

Jesus said Matt 5:5: Blessed are the meek, for they shall inherit the earth.”

Does this mean the 144,000 are not meek?

Matt 5:20: “For I say to you, that unless your righteousness exceeds the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees, you will by no means enter the kingdom of heaven.”

Because the great crowd will not enter heaven does this mean the great crowd lacks righteousness?

“For in it the righteousness of God is revealed from faith to faith; as it is written, “The just shall live by faith.” (Rom 1:17) Does this mean they lack faith?

Matt 6:33 “But seek first the kingdom of God and His righteousness, and all these things shall be added to you.”

Does this mean the 144,000 are not finding righteousness because they are not in the kingdom of God but the kingdom of heaven.

I Jn 2:29: “you know that everyone who practices righteousness is born of Him.” Is the great crowd not righteous because they are not born of him?

Why does John further say I Jn. 3:7: Little children, let no one deceive you. He who practices righteousness is righteous, just as He is righteous.”

Why did Rutherford in his book Millions Now Living Will Never Die (1920 taught that the millennium would start in 1925 and that the patriarchs; Abraham, Isaac and Jacob were going to return visibly to this earth. ... we may confidently expect that 1925 will mark the return of Abraham, Isaac, Jacob and the faithful prophets of old ... to the condition of human perfection” (“Millions Now Living Will Never Die,” Watchtower, 7/15/24, p. 89).  After 1925 expect shortly Abel, Enoch, Noah, Abraham, Isaac, Jacob…”(Way to Paradise p.224).How does this make sense when it was Rutherford that invented the two classes.

“And I say unto you, that many shall come from the east and west, and shall sit down with Abraham, and Isaac, and Jacob, in the kingdom of heaven” (Matt. 8:11) Are the Saints in the Old Testament are going to heaven? How are they part of the 144,000 if they do not have Jesus as their mediator? How could Rutherford say they would be resurrected on earth if they are part of the kingdom of heaven where only the 144,000 go?

Why did Paul say “For our citizenship is in heaven, from which we also eagerly wait for the Savior, the Lord Jesus Christ, who will transform our lowly body that it may be conformed to His glorious body, according to the working by which He is able even to subdue all things to Himself. (Phil. 3:20-21)

Was it only ALL the Philippians who citizenship is in heaven? Are only some Christians going to have their body transformed? What does the Bible say on this?

Col 1:5 “because of the hope which is laid up for you in heaven, of which you heard before in the word of the truth of the gospel”

Was it only the Colossians that had hope for heaven? why did Paul write Col 4:16 “Now when this epistle is read among you, see that it is read also in the church of the Laodicean.” Were the Laodicens included in this heavenly hope?

The apostles wanted the whole church to read their letters. “I charge you by the Lord that this epistle be read to all the holy brethren” (1 Cor. 1:2 and Eph.1:1). 1Thess. 5:27: “I charge you by the Lord that this epistle be read to all the holy brethren: meaning it was to be read to all the church’s. The letters were to passed to everyone everywhere, They did not teach only certain churches contained members of the heavenly class.

The writer of Hebrews - Heb. 10:34: “knowing that you have a better and an enduring possession for yourselves in heaven.”

Isn’t this the same as what Jesus said in Matt. 6:20: “but lay up for yourselves treasures in heaven, where neither moth nor rust destroys and where thieves do not break in and steal.” Why would anyone store treasures where they will not be?

Why does Peter write in 1 Pet 1:3-4: “Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who according to His abundant mercy has begotten us again to a living hope through the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead, to an inheritance incorruptible and undefiled and that does not fade away, reserved in heaven for you,

Matt 23:13: “But woe to you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! For you shut up the kingdom of heaven against men; for you neither go in yourselves, nor do you allow those who are entering to go in.”


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