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Did Jesus become sin and then go to hell to pay for our salvation? The clarity of the true gospel message 1 John says “and in Him, THERE IS NO SIN.” 1 Peter. 2:22: “Who committed no sin”… “offered himself without spot to God (Hebrews 9:14). The gospel of Jesus Christ says he is continually pure, was pure (Heb.4:15), and became the unblemished lamb on the cross. Anyone who says otherwise is not speaking the truth from the Bible. It is written “his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree (Cross) ” (1 Peter 2:24) “and washed us from our sins in his own blood" (Rev. 1:5) Heb. 9:15: “He is the Mediator of the new covenant, by means of death.” 1 Cor. 6:20: “For you were bought at a price” which is by the blood of the lamb,his death. Col. 1:20 “ having made peace through the blood of His cross. ” Matt 26:17 on the first day of the Feast of the Unleavened Bread the disciples asked where to prepare to eat the Passover? Matt 26:26-29 Jesus took bread , blessed and broke it, and gave it to the disciples and said, "Take, eat; this is My body." 27 Then He took the cup, and gave thanks, and gave it to them, saying, "Drink from it, all of you. 28 For this is My blood of the new covenant, which is shed for many for the remission of sins. So the bread which is unleavened (without sin) is representing his body and the blood Jesus himself says represents the new covenant. (Mk.14:22; Lk. 22:19; 1 Cor.5:8) Paul wrote, 1 Cor 11: 26 “For as often as you eat this bread and drink this cup, you proclaim the Lord's death till He comes”. Why his death? Because that is the gospel that Paul preached which saves. 1 Cor. 15:3 “Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures.” But another gospel which is accursed adds to the simple gospel of his work on the cross. This other gospel says Jesus became actual sin and went to hell. 2 Cor 5:21 For He made Him who knew no sin to be sin for us, that we might become the righteousness of God in Him.” In 2 Corinthians 5:21 the word “became”[sin] in the Greek is Metonym, means He became a sin offering, He did not become sin himself. He was made to be as a substitute sin for us, in a JUDICIAL sense. As a vicarious atonement; as a substitution He suffered in our place and took our penalty of judgment. In the Old Testament typology in the substitution motif, the priest would lay his hands on the offering to symbolize the transfer of his sin and guilt to the animal as a substitution (Leviticus 4:4, 24,33 also the scapegoat motif in chapter 16). The sacrificial animal did not become sin; sin was symbolically charged to it. If it became blemished, having sin, it was worthless. Jesus was the sin bearer; He carried sin away, He did not become sin. As all the previous scriptures tell us, he was WITHOUT SIN. To say such things goes against all that the Bible teaches and distorts the act and the nature of the sinless Son of God at his crucifixion, the place of purchase for us to be delivered from darkness to light. In Gal. 5:11 Paul speaks of the offense of the cross” (Gal.6:14) . He writes in 1 Cor. 1:18 “ the message of the cross is foolishness to those who are perishing, but to us who are being saved it is the power of God.” (Rom.1:16) Is the cross foolishness to you, or the power of God to save? The cross is where the transaction of life comes from, from Jesus blood for sin as the lamb of God. Neither Hell nor Satan were connected to your salvation in any way. Col 2:14-16 “ having wiped out the handwriting of requirements that was against us, which was contrary to us. And He has taken it out of the way, having nailed it to the cross. Having disarmed principalities and powers, He made a public spectacle of them, triumphing over them in it.” Anything that was against us was dealt by Jesus at his crucifixion, even the demons. If you want to believe this other gospel that is circulating, that is up to you, but understand another gospel does not save you (Phil 3:8). Only Gods gospel does. |
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